Pensé tener buena suerte,pero no Why the infinitive of tener? Shouldn't it be the conditional form ?
11.2 Pensé tener

Robert-F
May 14, 2013

jchamb
May 14, 2013
Good point, but I don't have the answer. Pensé tener buena suerte translates literally as "I hoped to have good luck", which makes sense to me.
The translation given is (I hoped we would have good luck) translates as "pensé tendriamos buena suerte". The only thing I noticed was using the infinitive form rather than the 1st person plural form (we) of the conditional.
I have noticed that there are many cases where one can say the same thing several different ways, and Spanish phrases can often be translated slightly different ways - yet still mean the same thing (just as in English).
It could well be that they used the infinitive because the conditional is not covered until the Rocket Platinum course, and it still means the same thing.

tosh72
May 22, 2013
Remember that you need to use "que" after "pensé".
Pensé que tendríamos buena suerte. I thought (that) we would have good luck.
Actually, "I hoped (that) we would have good luck" would be:
Esperé que tendríamos buena suerte.

jchamb
May 22, 2013
You're correct, as usual. However the sentance, and it's translation, was taken directly from lesson 11.2.
It's just a guess, but I'm thinking that it is because neither the conditional tense nor the subjunctive mood had been covered in that part of the course.
Are you still in Spain? How are things going?