Use of LE after "a quien"

Ken3883

Ken3883

Why is there a “LE” in the sentence:

A quién le quiere dar Gabriela un regalo?

Why could you not say the same without the "LE"?

Liss-Rocket-Languages-Tutor

Liss-Rocket-Languages-Tutor

¡Hola Ken3883!

Thank you for your question!

The le in this sentence is an excellent example of what is sometimes called a “redundant” object pronoun in Spanish: it's not adding anything new to the sentence, and is essentially repeating the information we already have from a quien “to whom.” This pronoun isn't technically required here, and you could drop it if you wanted to; however, native speakers commonly include it (especially when that pronoun is le or les).

You can find some more information on the use of reduntant indirect object pronouns in Lesson 5.7 "'To Me' and ‘For Her’: Indirect Object Pronouns" under the heading “To Whom? Adding Clarity to LE and LES.”

I hope this is helpful! Do let me know if you still have any questions.

Saludos,

Liss

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