phone call

In lesson 4.9 _   le voy a llama a juan manana.   le is said to mean   you him her it. yet it is translated as i am going to call john tomorrow.   Please explain the wording. Is it you i'm going to call  john tomorrow,   him i'm going to call john tomorrow,  her i'm going to call john tomorrow, or  it i'm going to call john tomorrow.    exasperated inNorth Carolina

I am guessing. Voy is for "I" and le is for John. I am going to call John yomorrow..

Hola,

Voy a llama is " I'm going to call ". The le preceding, is the redundant IO pronoun which refers to Juan who is the IO. "I'm going to call John tomorrow." I think trying to translate literally is what's confusing you.

Saludos,
 Ricardo

From the lesson, the sentence is: Le voy a llamar a Juan mañana.
An equivalent sentence is: Le voy a llamar mañana.

The second sentence translates "I am going to call him/her/you tomorrow" where le is an indirect object pronoun meaning "to her" or "to him" or "to you".  Presumably, the listener knows to whom I am calling from context.  The first sentence is more explicit in specifying who I am going to call.  However, we are still required to include the indirect object pronoun.

 

Hola a todos,

I'm  editing my reply, as I neglected to state that Robert offered a great explanation and I hope this link will  be of further help.

http://www.elearnspanishlanguage.com/grammar/pronouns/redundantobjectpronouns.html

Saludos,

Ricardo

Hola a todos,

Just a clarifying note. I put in the following question with RS awhile back for the following phrase:
- Pedí ayuda a Mauricio con mi problema.
Mmm, we were just discussing this in the forum... Doesn't the "Le" have to be there?
- Le pedí ayuda a Mauricio con mi problema.

Here is the response I received:

Hi Steve,

Thank you for the-mail.
Yes, you can put LE in this sentence but it is ok if you do not want to use it.
Keep on learning!

Kind regards,

Laura Linguidi
Rocket Languages Ltd